Post by Deleted on Feb 28, 2016 10:35:50 GMT -5
Hey, all. I've never had opportunity to use the rule about reducing what you owe if a player you dropped is re-signed.
I want to be sure I'm understanding the rules right:
I dropped Miguel Montero last July. Miguel Montero - C (16–17: $14M) [Reds owe $7M in '16 and '17]
The Mets signed Montero to the following contract in free agency: AAS: $9.0M (16: $7M, 17: $11M, 18: $9M)
How does this work? Do I go off AAS and thus owe only $5.0M in '16 and '17? Or do I go off the actual payout amount, meaning I owe $7.0M in '16 but only $3.0M in '17?
I want to be sure I'm understanding the rules right:
If the player is signed by another franchise after being dropped to free agency, then the previous owner will only be required to pay the difference between the player's old contract and the player's new contract (on a year-to-year basis for multi-year contracts), not to exceed half of the old contract.
When the player's contract with his new franchise is higher than his contract was with the old franchise, the previous owner will no longer be obligated to pay any further for the player and thus no further penalty will be imposed on that franchise's salary cap.
When the player's contract with his new franchise is less than half of the original contract, then the previous owner's liability maximum is still only half of the old contract. Only in the event that the new contract pays the player more than half of his old contract will the previous owner be able to count less than half of the old contract against his salary cap.
When the player's contract with his new franchise is higher than his contract was with the old franchise, the previous owner will no longer be obligated to pay any further for the player and thus no further penalty will be imposed on that franchise's salary cap.
When the player's contract with his new franchise is less than half of the original contract, then the previous owner's liability maximum is still only half of the old contract. Only in the event that the new contract pays the player more than half of his old contract will the previous owner be able to count less than half of the old contract against his salary cap.
I dropped Miguel Montero last July. Miguel Montero - C (16–17: $14M) [Reds owe $7M in '16 and '17]
The Mets signed Montero to the following contract in free agency: AAS: $9.0M (16: $7M, 17: $11M, 18: $9M)
How does this work? Do I go off AAS and thus owe only $5.0M in '16 and '17? Or do I go off the actual payout amount, meaning I owe $7.0M in '16 but only $3.0M in '17?
